Does the Atonement make ethical sense?

...and so, the Judge sentenced the murderer to go to the electric chair.  But just then, the Judge's only Son piped up.  "Please punish me instead!  That way, he won't have to die."  Out of his compassion for the criminal, the Judge agreed.  The Judge's Son was executed, and the criminal went free.  Tears pouring down his face, the killer vowed to be a new man from that day forward...

This parable is found nowhere in the Bible, but I'm pretty sure I've heard some version of it preached from the pulpit once or twice, as an analogy for what Jesus did for us on the Cross.  Here's the problem: the story is ethically outrageous.  How could punishing an innocent person instead of a guilty person possibly be just?  In the story, the Son volunteers to die; it's not as though the judge just ordered the execution of some random person.  But how could the guilt of punishment possibly be "transferred" from one person to another?  The basic responsibility of the Judge to judge correctly is violated:

Acquitting the guilty and condemning the innocent—
the Lord detests them both.   (Prov 17:15)

Admittedly, the story I began with was just meant to be an illustration, not the actuality.  There are many different metaphors in the Bible to describe the Atonement, and most of them don't have to do with the justice system.  The Bible talks about ransoming slaves, healing diseases, growing new life, being adopted as sons, and so on.  But the criminal justice metaphor is one of the most common analogies in Western Christianity, so let's try to run with it for a moment.

Metaphors do not need to accord with the reality in every single way.  It is even possible to illustrate righteous behavior by means of a person who, in the fictional story, behaves immorally.  (For example, in Jesus' parable of the Dishonest Steward, the steward's clever way of enriching his master's debtors by fraud, to get special treatment from them later, is an analogy for how Christians should give away their "worldly" possessions to the poor in order to gain something more valuable.  One is a sin and the other isn't, but Jesus' point is that they are similarly clever.)

However, in the (nonbiblical) story of the Judge's Son, the ethics of the story is so anomalous that it seems to render suspect any meaning which can reasonably be obtained from the story.  The motivations of the characters don't make any sense, either from an altruistic or a selfish perspective, so it's unclear how we should react, other than with horror at the perversion of justice.

But now let's change the setting a little bit.  We'll replace the criminal trial with a civil trial, and the death penalty with a fine:

A man breaks his neighbor's window.  The neighbor sues, and the Judge orders the man to pay $200 to repair the broken window.  However, the man is unable to pay, due to his poverty.  So his friend kindly agrees to pay the fine instead.   The friend pays $200 to the neighbor, and the windowbreaker goes free.

Suddenly, most of the ethical problems seem to evaporate.  Most of us would have no problem with a Judge allowing this.  In certain cases, we might feel like it is was a little unfair for a perpetrator to get off scott-free, because someone else paid the fine.  But here, the windowbreaker couldn't pay.  In light of the circumstances, the resolution of the case seems reasonable.  What is the difference?

Part of it, presumably, is that we are more used to thinking of money as fungible than life.  The concept of transferring debts is in accordance with our culture's common sense, while paying an innocent life for a guilty life is not (and rightly so)!

But I think the bigger issue here is the question of what the punishment is expected to accomplish.  In the case of the fine, the main issue is that the window is broken!  The fact that the windowbreaker is guilty comes in only secondarily.  Given that the new window needs to be paid for, it seems fair to assign the liability to the man who—whether accidentally, or in a fit of rage—broke the first one.  But if someone else wants to repair the window, that solves the problem: (1) The neighbor is compensated for the damage to his building, so he has no right to object, (2) The friend is allowed to do whatever he likes with his own money, and (3) the windowbreaker is enabled to pay the fine.  No more problem!

Things are quite different in the case of a murderer, who pushes someone out the window and breaks their skull instead of the glass.  The main problem is not the same.

One might be tempted to say that the main problem in the criminal case is that the victim is dead.  But that isn't so!  The death of the victim is the most tragic part of the situation, but it is not what the criminal trial is there to fix!  Sentencing murders to death does not bring back their victims.   Last I checked, not even a sentence of life-without-possibility-of-parole does that.  No, in the criminal trial, punishing the criminal is the entire point of the proceedings (although there are multiple goals which this punishment might accomplish).

Another way to see this, is to compare to a situation where the victim dies accidentally.  In this case, the death of the victim part is exactly the same.  That they were murdered is the crucial difference.  This fact is not located in the victim (who may not have known whether or not the fall was an accident), rather it is located in the mind and heart of the murderer.  The murderer kills the body of the victim, but it is their own soul which they are doing violence to.  If you murder someone, in the next moment you become the sort of person who would murder someone.

So then, this is the stain which the criminal punishment is supposed to fix.  As Socrates says in the Gorgias, having wickedness in the soul is the worst thing that can possibly happen to you, and the guilty who are punished are benefited by it, since the punishment is a medicine for their wickedness.

It then becomes clear why it is impossible for an innocent person to justly take on the punishment of a murderer.  Because it would not in fact fix the problem.  In the criminal case, it is the murderer who is the broken window.  Punishing the guilty party through the judicial system is our (usually very inadequate) way of trying to restore the window: to patch over the cracks with tape, or at least to sweep up the broken glass by taking away their power to hurt anyone else.  Punishing an innocent person does no good at all.  Unless...

Unless things were so arranged, so that the death of the innocent person actually did fix the broken window—or to drop the analogy, what if Jesus' death actually causes the stain in the murder's soul to be cleansed and purified?  Suppose that, by accepting Jesus' death, the soul of the murderer is put to death (Romans 6:6-11) and then restored, so that the person who once hated his victim is now is full of love and compassion.  In that case, justice would be done (but in a way invisible to the justice system, and perhaps even to society).  The murderer would be simultaneously punished and forgiven by one and the same act of God.

How is that even possible?  Well, I assume it has something to do with the divinity of Jesus; that when God assumed a human nature, this affected his relationship with every human being who ever lived.  I suppose it has something to do with the Holy Spirit tampering with the neural network of our brain, after we give him permission to do so.  I believe it has something to do with the omnipotent Father wanting to express his forgiveness through a tangible, observable event taking place in spacetime history.

But now we are asking a different question: does the Atonement make metaphysical sense?  That is, is it the sort of thing which could happen in the real world, given the most basic structure of existence (whatever that is).  The original question was whether the Atonement makes ethical sense.  That is, supposing it to be possible, would it be desirable?

Assuming it is possible, it seems clear that offering the possibility of moral redemption to every person on Earth, no matter how wicked, is a very great benefit.  One might still ask (if one is inclined to second-guess the Creator) whether we really need such a desperate remedy, and why God did not provide forgiveness in some less bloody way.  This does not change the fact that it works.

At the Cross, we see God's solidarity with human beings.  He suffers with the innocent, and for the guilty (and we have all been both at times).  The Cross shows up the depths of human depravity, and reveals that the primary victim of our sin has always been God.  But it is also the triumph of God's mercy, because it shows us that no matter what suffering we cause to ourselves and others, God is there accepting the pain, refusing to retaliate and offering continual forgiveness.  I cannot imagine any more graphic way for God to show this, than the way he did.

Posted in Theology | 5 Comments

What actually happened with Galileo

This finished a bit too late to get into the previous collection of Random Stuff, so it gets to be its own post.  A long but fascinating saga by St. Michael Flynn on the topic of what actually went down with Galileo, and the many competing astronomical models of his time:

The Great Ptolemaic Smackdown

I also very much enjoyed his book Eifelheim, about aliens landing in medieval Europe.  It gives a much better impression of how medievals actually thought, compared to the usual fare.  (Although I thought the frame story, set in the near-future, was a little weak.)

I've been travelling a bit recently, to Princeton and to the Perimeter Institute (which is in Waterloo, Ontario), but I hope to be able to get back to blogging soon.  But this week, I have a visiting collaborator, and potentially jury duty (which for the record, I am not trying to evade.)

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More Random Stuff

  • I've always thought there was something silly about the librarian festival "banned books week", and this post by St. Darwin explains why.
  • However, there's no need to buy games on the web.  If you can afford index cards, and a pencil, then you can start playing The Card Game, a self-modifying card game invented by yours truly.
  • From St. William G. Witts' blog, an essay on A Hermeneutic of Discontinuity, a take-down some supposedly "Christian" theologians, who actually don't really believe much of anything.  I was particularly interested in the following passage because of my recent posts on Metaphors in Theology:

The primary criterion by which Borg decides whether an event mentioned in the Bible is historical or metaphorical seems to be whether it is miraculous, or mentions what Borg refers to as an “intervention” of God. As with many authors in our narrative of the “hermeneutics of discontinuity,” Borg is clear that contemporary people cannot believe that miracles happen, so any biblical story that contains such an event must be interpreted as a metaphor. For example, Borg writes that the biblical description of Jesus as the Son of God who died for our sins and rose from the dead “no longer works for millions of people.” Also, he writes, “there are many parts of the gospels that they can’t take literally. When literalized, the story of Jesus becomes literally incredible.”  Of course, that millions of contemporary people do take the miraculous events of the gospel “literally” belies Borg’s claim. For those who believe, the story of Jesus is literally credible. That is what the word “belief” means.

The approach here is entirely circular and question begging. Borg nowhere makes an argument that miracles are metaphysically impossible, or that the God who created the world could not become incarnate, or that if Jesus were the Son of God that he could not forgive sins or rise from the dead. Nor does he engage in a careful textual study to show that the biblical texts themselves distinguish between non-miraculous “historical events” and miraculous “metaphorical” events. The distinction between a “literal” and a “metaphorical” reading is assumed in approaching the text and then imposed on it.

Moreover, Borg’s is an odd use of the word “metaphor,” which normally means “figurative,” not miraculous. Presumably, a secular account of undisputed and non-miraculous historical events could use highly metaphorical language, and might have a great deal of contemporary significance or “meaning,” for example, a biography of Abraham Lincoln or Martin Luther King, Jr. At the same time, an account of an entirely fantastic and fictional event could use non-metaphorical and prosaic language. For example, tall tales about Paul Bunyan often derive their humor from describing highly exaggerated and impossible stories in prosaic language. It is not clear why Borg wants to use the expression “metaphorical” to describe certain events in the Bible except to say that “they did not happen.”

People have a bad habit of using the word "metaphorical" to mean "just kidding".  But that's just not what it means.  Nor does "literal" mean factual.  For example, when reading a novel we understand that "Mr. Jones went out the door" can be a literal statement, while "Mrs. Jones' heart was broken" is a metaphor.  The Literal vs. Metaphorical axis lies at right angles to the Factual vs. Fictional axis; all four combinations are allowed.

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The Equations of Motion

So far in my explanation of General Relativity, I've discussed the metric g_{ab}, from which one can calculate the curvature tensor R^{a}_{bcd} by way of the connection \Gamma^{a}_{bc}.

In practical astrophysical contexts:

  • The metric is related to the gravitational potential at a point, i.e. how much ``potential energy'' a unit mass will have sitting in the gravitational field.  But I haven't said anything about energy yet, so you're entitled to ignore this remark...
  • The connection (which involves a derivative of the metric) tells you the gravitational force at a point, i..e the amount by which freely-falling objects will accelerate in a given coordinate system.
  • Finally, the curvature (which involves a derivative of the connection) tells you the tidal forces at a point, i.e. a difference in the force acting on a nearby object.  Yes, the ocean tides happen because the moon's gravitational field has nonzero curvature at the Earth's location.  That's why it's called that.

So far this is just the kinematics of general relativity—that is, what kind of entities are involved, and the basic outline of their behavior.  For example, If I wanted to tell you the kinematics for basic Newtonian mechanics (what you learn in high school physics), I'd say that A) there are a bunch of objects which have masses and positions (and orientations if you want things to get complicated...), B) the position of an object can change with time, but its mass is ``conserved'' and therefore doesn't, and C) if you want to work out the ``force'' of an object, you can do so using F = ma.

OK, so I've told you all about Newtonian Mechanics, and now you can go use it to solve problems, right?  No, of course not!  You can recite "the time-derivative of the position is the velocity, the time-derivative of the velocity is the acceleration, and the acceleration equals the force over the mass" over and over again, but it's totally useless until I tell you what the forces actually are!  Without that, you can't make any predictions at all about what the objects are doing.

Unless you count boring predictions like "the object will be somewhere", you need to know something else.  This something else is called the dynamics, which means the rules for how things actually change with time.  (For example, if I told you that any two objects with mass m_1 and m_2 at a distance r are gravitationally attracted towards each other's positions, with a force that is proportional to F = Gm_1m_2/r^2, and if you know the initial positions and velocities, then you can work out their orbits!  At least, you can if you're clever at math, like Newton was.)

So we need to write down an equation which says how things can change with time.  We call this the equations of motion.  Ever since Newton wrote down F = m{\ddot x} (each dot being a time derivative, so that his archnemesis Leibnitz would have written F = m (d^2x/dt^2) to say the same thing) we've realized that these equations typically involve taking two derivatives.  So we shouldn't be surprised that the equation of motion for general relativity involves the curvature tensor R^{a}_{bcd}, since it's a double derivative of the metric, which is the basic field of General Relativity.

To write down the equations of motion, we need to massage the curvature tensor a little bit.  If you've forgotten the ground rules for tensors, click on the link.  We start with the the Riemann curvature tensor R^{a}_{bcd}.  Since each of the letters is a spacetime vector index with four possible values, it looks like this has 4 \times 4 \times 4 \times 4 = 256 components.  Fortunately there are a lot of symmetries and constraints, so there's actually only 20 independent components per spacetime point.  We can define the Ricci tensor R_{ab} by contracting the top index with the middle index on the bottom, like so:

R_{ab} = R^c_{acb};

Recall that the Einstein summation convention says that if you ever see the same letter as both a subscript and as a superscript, you've got to add up all of the four possible ways for them to be the same (i.e. both 0, both 1, both 2, or both 3).  Since the Ricci tensor is symmetric (R_{ab} = R_{ba}), it only represents 10 out of the 20 curvature components.  If this is not enough simplification for you, we can go further by contracting again using the inverse metric:

R = R_{ab} g^{ab}.

R is called the Ricci scalar, because it has just one component.

Whew!  Without further ado, here's the equation of motion for General Relativity, called "the Einstein equation" after you know who:

R_{ab} - \tfrac{1}{2} g_{ab} R = 8\pi G T_{ab}.

Compact, beautiful, and probably completely incomprehensible since I haven't explained all of the symbols yet!

The 8 and the \pi are the same numbers which you learned about in school.  G is Newton's constant, which I sneakily introduced earlier in this post.  Note that the 8\pi isn't really just there for backwards compatibility with Newton's force law.  If Einstein's equation had been discovered first, we would have left out the 8\pi from it, and then we would have written the force law as F = G m_1 m_2/ 8\pi r^2.  But as it is, Newton got his G before Einstein did, so we're stuck with it.

But the really important symbol here is T_{ab}.  This is the energy-momentum tensor, or (because why should anything have only one name!) the stress-energy tensor.  It's a 4 \times 4 symmetric matrix which tells you how the energy and momentum of matter (stuff) are flowing through a given point.  Now if you are a true Israelite in whom there is no guile, you should be asking: "What on earth (or in the heavens) are energy and momentum!  You haven't explained that yet!"  No I haven't.  For now, let's just say it's a property of matter, but we will get to it in a later post.

The combination of curvatures R_{ab} - \tfrac{1}{2} g_{ab} R which appears on the left-hand-side is also known as the Einstein tensor.  It has the same 10 components as the Ricci tensor R_{ab}; they're just repackaged a bit differently.  So the Einstein equation is actually 10 equations.

So, if you know what the matter is doing, you can figure out something about the geometry of matter.  At least, you can figure out the 10 of the components of the curvature which correspond to the Ricci tensor R_{ab}.  Since the full Riemann tensor R_{abcd} has 20 components, there are 10 components left which are undetermined.  The remaining 10 components are called the Weyl tensor, and can be nonzero even in regions in which there is no matter.  That's why there can be tidal forces outside of the surface of the sun or moon, even though there isn't any solar or lunar matter there.  It's the Weyl tensor which does that.  Also, as I wrote in Geometry is a Field:

There can also be distortions of the spacetime geometry which exist independently of matter.  These gravity waves are to gravity what light is to electromagnetism, ripples in the field which travel through empty space, and can be emitted and absorbed.  The propagation of these waves is also determined by the Einstein equation.  Since gravity comes from massive objects, gravity waves are emitted when extremely large masses oscillate, for example when two neutron stars orbit each other.  We know gravity waves are there, but we haven't detected them directly.  However, we hope to detect them soon with the LIGO experiment.

It's also the Weyl tensor which allows for gravity waves.

Clever readers may notice that I never wrote down what the Weyl tensor actually is.  There's a clever formula where you start with R^a_{bcd}, and then cleverly suck out all of the information about R_{ab}, and end up with the Weyl tensor C^a_{bcd}.  But it's a bit complicated, so don't ask.  The important thing is even when all of the components of R_{ab} are zero, R^a_{bcd} doesn't have to be zero.

When we say that the Einstein equation is the ``equation of motion'' for General Relativity, we mean that you can use it to work out how the metric changes with time.   So, if you know the metric everywhere at some ``time'' which we will call $t = 0$ (think of this as being like the position of the gravitational field), and if you also know its first derivative \dot{g}_{ab} (think of this as being like the velocity), and if you know what the matter is doing, then the Einstein equation (which is like the force law) lets you work out the second derivative \ddot{g}_{ab}.  By continuing to apply the Einstein equation, you can work out the value of the metric for all time!

Well, not quite.  Remember that coordinates don't matter!  This means that we can't actually hope to totally determine the metric, since if we start with a metric which obeys the Einstein equation, and distort it by changing the coordinate system, we get an equally good solution to Einstein's equation.  So what we should really say, is that if you know the metric and its first derivative at t=0 (and you know how matter behaves so you can figure out T_{ab}), then you can determine the fields at t > 0 or t < 0 up to coordinate transformations.

So we can actually only need to figure out \ddot{g}_{ab} up to coordinate transformations.  There are 10 components of  g_{ab}, but there are also 4 spacetime coordinates (t,\,x,\,y,\,z) whose values can be freely determined.  As a result, we actually only need to use 10 - 4 = 6 of the Einstein equations in order to figure out how the metric changes with time.

The remaining 4 equations are called constraints, because they don't involve second derivatives of the metric.  Instead, they restrict which values of (g_{ab}(x,y,z),\,\dot{g}_{ab}(x,y,z)) you are allowed to start with.  These constraints are one of the most subtle features of General Relativity, because they ensure that the total energy and momentum of an object (like the sun) are encoded in the gravitational field coming out from it.  However, since I haven't yet explained what energy and momentum are, I should probably say something about that first, before going into this.

Posted in Physics | 6 Comments

Word-for-Word translations

St. Rollin Weeks writes:

As an FMC member, I have attended two of your sessions.

I am interested in the prospect of time "before" the Big Bang, Time and Eternity, God's foreknowledge and man's free will, the Arrow of Time (Roger Penrose), Time Reborn (lee Smolin), and the books and papers on 'time' by William Craig Lane and J P Moreland of the Apologetics Dept. in Talbot Theol. Seminary at Biola.

But what I am really into right now is writing a paper on the King James Only (KJO) controversy. I have narrowed it down to 3 essential issues: (1 which are the best manuscripts (Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic) to use--the issue of Textual Criticism'? (2 if God preserved His Word perfectly throughout the ages, what mechanisms did He use, and where in the Scriptures do we find evidence that He would use these mechanisms?, and (3 how do we deal with the very intractable problem of translation from the original languages?

I have an MA in Linguistics, and I have done field work in Brazil with an indigenous tribal people. Some translation issues I have become aware of are:
~ ancient historical translations ((Coptic, Syriac, Septuigint) have used slightly different source texts. Were these the genuine Word of God?
~ Greek-to-English translation works fairly well, because both have highly developed vocabularies, but this is not the case when translating into a language with vastly different cultural emphases and interests, and
~ Greek and English are both members of the Indo-European Families. Ancient Hebrew to English is not so good a fit. When one gets into other wildly different languages, word for word translations become impossible.

I hope to join in again in one of your classes.

In Christ,
Rollin Weeks

Hi Rollin, I'm glad you enjoyed the classes.  That's a nice grab bag of issues you mention there, but since you highlight King-James-only-ism, I think I'll focus on that. I find it difficult to even take the KJO view seriously, for a variety of reasons.

There is simply no such thing as a perfect translation.  Even from Greek to English, word-for-word translation is not always the most accurate or faithful way to translate. I assume you know that Greek is a case language, meaning that (unlike English) it is the endings of the words, rather than their position in the sentence, which determines their grammatical role in the sentence (subject, object, possessor, etc.).  Instead they used word order for purposes of emphasis.  The first and last words in a sentence are the ones which are being emphasized.

Another issue is particles.  In a normal Greek sentence, there are a few two or three letter words called "particles" which normally appear right after the first word. When you are first learning how to translate Greek, you simply leave these words out since they don't seem to affect the basic meaning.  For Greek experts (as I am not!) they show how the ideas in the sentence are connected to the ideas which have gone before.

There are various tricks which can be used to render these meanings into English, but they usually involve departing from the word-for-word ordering.  In these respects, "paraphrases" like the New Living Version or St. Phillips' translation can sometimes actually be more accurate than a more "literal" translation, since they have the freedom to signal emphasis and connection-between-ideas in other ways.

In the absence of a specific divine revelation, it is simply hubris to say that God specially favors one particular English translation, given the existence of numerous good translations both before and after the KJV. That being said, given the time and the lesser degree of scholarly knowledge, the KJV was a remarkably good translation, combining literalness with style in a skilled way (partly with the help of archaic English "particles" such as "lo!").  Another very nice feature is that when the original language is ambiguous, they tried to translate into English in a way which reflects that ambiguity, instead of just picking one possibility.

I said it was a good translation: since the meanings of many English words have changed over 400 years, and many passages now convey an incorrect meaning to modern readers.  To use the KJV today, especially with uneducated readers, is to guarantee that they walk away with wrong ideas about what the Bible says.

Regarding issues of Textual Criticism, the Textus Receptus differs from the accepted scholarly text in numerous places.  This has a lot to do with the fact that St. Erasmus's Greek text was based on only 7 relatively late Greek manuscripts, each including only parts of the New Testament, and all but one from a single textual tradition.  And we are supposed to believe that this is more accurate than all other more carefully compiled texts?  That God miraculously preserved his word through Erasmus, while allowing all other scholars everywhere else to fall into error? Because of his special desire for later English-speaking people (but apparently not people in other cultures) to have a perfect translation?  Ridiculous!

Regarding the Old Testament textual issues, you are right that the Septuagint seems to have been based on a somewhat different version of the Hebrew text than the Masoretic, which is used by almost all modern translations.  Which text is more accurate in a given place is anyone's guess, but the Dead Sea Scrolls are more similar to the Masoretic text.  There are many instances in which we know that the Septuagint was poorly translated (sometimes they even left out large chunks which they didn't know what to do with!), although in other cases we have to defer to them because the meaning of the Hebrew words is otherwise unknown, or in when the Masoretic text is corrupt (e.g. 1 Samuel 13:1, which in the Masoretic text says that Saul was one year old when he became king, and that he reigned for two years!)

I believe that God has promised this about his word:

For as the rain cometh down, and the snow from heaven, and returneth not thither, but watereth the earth, and maketh it bring forth and bud, that it may give seed to the sower, and bread to the eater:

So shall my word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it. (Isaiah 55:10-11)

This, however, is not a promise about every word being preserved perfectly in some static sense.  It's a promise about God getting the results which he intended to get: namely a harvest of righteousness and justice in the lives of those who are transformed by God's word.

The belief that this transformation will somehow be inhibited if we don't have 100% certainty about every word (or even 100% certainty about which books should be in the Old Testament!) is a Fundamentalist notion which has little connection to actual progress in holiness.  Yes, God's word is fully inspired and should be treated with respect, down to the last "jot and title"—at least when we know what they are—but we can't lose sight of why he gave us his word.

I believe that God is very unscrupulous in how he reaches people.  His Spirit can sometimes even use translation mistakes to bring people closer to him (and in that sense, they may be God's word to that particular individual), but we should still do our best to avoid making them.

There's a very important word which is missing from this post so far.  That word is "Jesus".  Muslims believe that the highest revelation from God is a Holy Book, dictated to a prophet without any human contamination, and perfectly preserved from error through the centuries.   We also have a Holy Book, but we believe that God's final revelation is a Person.  That's why God chose to use the human personalities of the biblical authors as a means to communicate to us the personality of Jesus.

What we need is not a word-for-word translation onto paper, but a "Word-for-Word" translation onto our hearts and minds.  Remember what St. Paul says:

Do we begin again to commend ourselves? or need we, as some others, epistles of commendation to you, or letters of commendation from you?  Ye are our epistle written in our hearts, known and read of all men: Forasmuch as ye are manifestly declared to be the epistle of Christ ministered by us, written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God; not in tables of stone, but in fleshy tables of the heart. 

And such trust have we through Christ to God-ward: Not that we are sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency is of God; Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.  (2 Cor 3:1-6)

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